Hard to believe?
Examine the evidence.
The first point below is assumed by Christians AND Jews that:
- Christianity was founded in the 1st century CE by J-e-s-u-s C-h-r-i-s-t. -it wasn't.
- Christians assume that the Greek manuscripts all agree and there are only minor errors. -not true.
- Christians assume that the NT agrees with the OT.-not true.
Secondly,Eusebius,the earliest extant church historian,wrote that Christianity began in 135 C.E,not before.
Thirdly,since the earliest Greek NT mss(manuscript) is dated 200-299 C.E.,then the obvious answer is(since ONLY Judaism existed in the 1st century)that the NT manuscripts came from "Roman Syncretisms" and/or 'corrupted stories passed down by Hellenized Jews."
There are several ways one can prove this.....
One being that Religious Jews and Hellenized Jews speaking of deity were not speaking the same words.The former's words came straight from Sinai,the latter's words straight from Greek mythology and the pagan temples.The other way is by comparing the Hebrew/Aramaic and Greek terms for the same things.They don't mean the same!What's more,a search of Torah and Tanakh -in Hebrew,shows the above and in addition also exposes the false doctrines in the NT.
Fourthly,Eusebius testified of the original Netzarim that:
- they lived in the Jewish quarter alongside the Pharisees(the ancestors of the today's Orthodox Jews),amicably and Jews were forbidden according to Hallachah to have contact with non-Jews.
- They only accepted the Tanakh,their own Hebrew Matitiyahu,rejected the heavily redacted Greek NT,considered Saul(Paul)an apostate and rejected his writings.
- In 333,Constantine finally succeeded in completely eradicating them for refusing to compromize Torah,go to church on Sun-g-d-day("Constantine instituted rest on the venerable day of the sun("dies solis invicita")in 313 C.E. and anybody caught "judaizing" was punished.) and eat Pork on the way out.
This excellent book is out of print,but may be found used somewhere online(I found a copy on Ebay),or in a bookstore somewhere.
Take a typical Christian statement:
"J-e-s-u-s died for our sins"
- Original Sin -There is no doctrine of Original Sin in Judaism.Kippur(Atonement) is already in Torah,so if you sin,you make Teshuvah(return,repent)and do better.The Doctrine of Orginal Sin comes from the Roman Church and was developed by Athanasius.
- Vicarious Atonment - 4th century Roman Church(look it up.I did) -again,atonement is already in Torah and earch man is responsible for his own sins.
- Savior -This goes against the Torah requirements for Mashiakh,namely he must keep Torah(or be disqualified according to Devarim 13:1-6).Mashiakh must also be a man and agent of Hashem,not some "man-g_d",or "demi-g-d."
"Man couldn't keep G-d's commandments,so G_d had to send His son",etc....is completely against Torah and Tanakh,and betrays its Hellenist/Roman pagan origin.Besides,look at the results of preaching this nonsense.You have people who claim to be Christians,living any old how expecting they're going to be in Heaven.
"The Law is done away with" is not even in the NT(I'm not validating it,merely making a point.),but comes from Constantine/Papal Rome and fits perfectly with The Vatican's agenda,then and now towards the Jews.
On another note:
During WW2,"The Vatican Underground" as it was called,helped many Nazis escape to South America,Mexico and other places.The Vatican,according to one writer,also saved some Jews,so that in the event the Nazis lost,the Vatican could claim,they did what they could to save some Jews,and yet -they/the Jesuits were behind WW2(and all others!)anyway.
btw: the word "law" is an accurate translation of the Greek word νόμος ("nomos"),if you're referring to "the unalterable Athenian law" but it is NOT an accurate translation of the Hebrew word תורה ("Torah"),which should be either "Instruction",or "teaching."
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ReplyDeleteShalom Richard!
ReplyDeleteYou have many good points!
I have some comments that I want to make.
[I provide explanations to some of the xlits in order that readers not proficient in Hebrew also will understand.]
You wrote that Christian and Jews assume this:
"It is assumed that the Greek manuscripts all agree and there are only minor errors. -not true.
It is assumed that the NT agrees with the OT . -not true."
Jews don't assume that NT agress with Tana''ch (as I am sure you know). It would be better to use the term 'Tana''ch'. I know that you link to a good definition, but everyone doesn't read it. You could write "which Christians call the OT" in parentheses.
Jews don't assume that all of the Greek manusscripts agree (there might be some Jews whom erronously assume that).
There might be some Jews whom don't know about the origin of Christianity, but you shouldn't generalize by writing 'Jews'.
Also, as you know, there are many persons labelling themselves as Jews, but whom are rejecting mitzwot of Torah - e.g. people born Jewish, but whom reject Torah.
A Jew rejecting Torah becomes kareit [cut off] from the b'rit [pact] haSheim has with the Jews.:
"bә-Midbar 15.29-31 — any Jew or geir who, ביד רמה (bә-yad ramah; with a high hand; i.e. rebelliously against the Beit-Din), transgresses a mitzwah of the one Torâh' – which is here stipulated to apply equally to both Jew and geir – thus, מגדף(mәgadeiph; has hurled-abuse at, reviled, blasphemed) י--ה [Documentation: Link"
Too my understanding, this would apply to those whom rebel against the most ancient mishpatim, e.g. by destroying their beard -i.e. cutting/shaving it shorter than the minimum length [Documentation of the most ancient Halakhah re. beard: Link
This quote really shows the importance of doing ones utmost to keep all of the mitzwot - including Judaic conversion (as it is commanded in S'hemot ['Exodus'] 12:48), b'rit milah [circumcision according to Halachah], attending a miqraei qodesh on Shabbatot and khagim and making aliyah. An intimate relationship (i.e. secular "marriage") with a non-Jewish spouse not willing to to keep Torah and convert and become a Jew, can't be an excuse for not fulfilling the mitzwah of converting and becoming a Jew, since the person desiring to keep the mitzwot non-selectively could terminate this relationsship with the Torah-rejecting spouse (the Jewish conversion would also enable to fulfill the mitzwah of making aliyah). Torah requires each individual to do his/her utmost to keep the mitzwot and terminating the relationsship (i.e. secular "divorce") would be included in the utmost that a person can do.
I hope you appreciate my thoughs! I wish you a great day! Shalom, Anders
I made some changes,so hopefully it works better now and as for your later points,they'd make a great article.Go for it!
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